This is definitely a question for a real estate attorney, and for anyone here to properly answer your question, much more info is needed.. so in general.. if you have a home in California that you live in (primary residence), and the first mortgage holder forecloses by "Power of Sale", then there is no recourse, which means that the proceeds obtained at sale will satisfy the outstanding debt.. even if it's less than what's owed.. This is assuming it's your primary residence, the loan is a "Purchase Money" first, or you refinanced using a "Rate and Term" first mortgage, and there is no 2nd mortgage.. if this is the scenario, then they cannot come after you for the difference.. but understand the scenarios are endless, and whether your lender would have recourse could change based on many factors, so it's best to ask a qualified real estate attorney.. .. I'm a Broker here in Scottsdale AZ and I only lend in Arizona. If you or someone you know is looking for financing options, feel free to contact me or pass along my information. William J. Acres, Lender411's number ONE lender in Arizona. 480-287-5714 WilliamAcres.com
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